TRexSmarts
02-01-2006, 11:13 PM
Lighthouse, maybe you can help me understand this?
A lot lately I have been hearing announcers talking about when a player swats down on the ball, that the ref is going to automatically call a foul compared to if the player swatted upward to knocked the ball loose. My question is what is the thinking of refs calling these "assume" calls that if the player swats down on the ball that he must had gotten the hands compared to swatting up? Or is this just a big assumption by the announcers? If it's true though, why do refs consider these differently?
TRexSmarts
A lot lately I have been hearing announcers talking about when a player swats down on the ball, that the ref is going to automatically call a foul compared to if the player swatted upward to knocked the ball loose. My question is what is the thinking of refs calling these "assume" calls that if the player swats down on the ball that he must had gotten the hands compared to swatting up? Or is this just a big assumption by the announcers? If it's true though, why do refs consider these differently?
TRexSmarts
